CCNA1

1. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

A) intranet
B) extranet
C) Internet
D) extendednet

2. A small business user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

A) cable modem
B) satellite
C) cell modem
D) dial-up
E) DSL

3. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

A) The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
B) The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
C) The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode
D) The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

4. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

A) Ctrl-Z
B) Ctrl-C
C) Ctrl-Shift-6
D) Ctrl-Shift-X

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

A) linevtyin
B) lineconin
C) letmein
D) secretin

6. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

A) This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.
B) This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.
C) This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.
D) This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.
E) This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router maintenance.

7. What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?

A) The SVI provides a physical interface for remote access to the switch.
B) The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch
C) The SVI adds Layer 4 connectivity between VLANs.
D) The SVI provides a faster method for switching traffic between ports on the switch.

8. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

A) unicast
B) broadcast
C) duplex
D) multicast

9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer?

A) BOOTP
B) ICMP, IP
C) POP
D) PPP

10. What PDU is associated with the transport layer?

A) bits
B) frame
C) segment
D) packet

11. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

A) It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
B) It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
C) It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
D) It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame

12. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?

A) radio waves
B) fiber
C) UTP
D) microwave

13. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the communication carried over UTP cables?

A) bandwidth
B) crosstalk, electromagnetic interference
C) signal modulation technique
D) size of the network

14. What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer?

A) physical
B) network access
C) LLC,MAC
D) transport
E) internet

15. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?

A) ring
B) star
C) bus
D) mesh
E) hierarchical

16. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

A) message encapsulation
B) access method
C) message encoding
D) flow control

17. If data is being sent over a wireless network, then connects to an Ethernet network, and eventually connects to a DSL connection, which header will be replaced each time the data travels through a network infrastructure device?

A) Layer 3
B) Layer 4
C) physical
D) data link

18. What best describes the destination IPv4 address that is used by multicasting?

A) an IP address that is unique for each destination in the group
B) a single IP multicast address that is used by all destinations in a group
C) a 48 bit address that is determined by the number of members in the multicast group
D) a group address that shares the last 23 bits with the source IPv4 address

19. In an Ethernet network, when a device receives a frame of 1200 bytes, what will it do?

A) add random data bytes to make the frame 1518 bytes long and then forward it
B) drop the frame
C) process the frame as it is
D) send an error message to the sending device

20. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?

A) source IP address
B) destination IP address
C) Ethernet type
D) source MAC address
E) destination MAC address

21. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

A) It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.
B) It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
C) It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
D) It initiates an ARP request.

22. What are two features of ARP?

A) An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
B) If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply
C) When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
D) If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
E) If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.

23. Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet using domain names?

A) DNS
B) WINS
C) SMTP
D) HTTP
E) DHCP

24. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

A) media dependent
B) connectionless
C) user data segmentation
D) reliable end-to-end delivery

25. Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a workstation. Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the workstation?

A) fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
B) ::1/128
C) 2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128
D) fe80::/64

26. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

A) NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
B) FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS.
C) RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
D) ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
E) ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.

27. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private network use? (Choose three.)

A) 192.168.0.0/16
B) 10.0.0.0/8
C) 172.16.0.0/12
D) 169.254.0.0/16
E) 100.64.0.0/14

28. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

A) 2001:DB8::AB00::1234
B) 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
C) 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234
D) 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

29. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

A) link-local
B) unique local
C) site local
D) global unicast

30. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?

A) all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link
B) all IPv6 DHCP servers
C) all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
D) all IPv6 enabled devices across the network

31. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

A) to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
B) to inform routers about network topology changes
C) to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
D) to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions

32. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

A) It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.
B) It sends four Echo Request messages.
C) It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host
D) It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.

33. What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /26 mask?

A) 64
B) 62
C) 32
D) 256
E) 254

34. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

A) 172.16.19.255
B) 172.16.20.255
C) 172.16.255.255
D) 172.16.23.255
E) 172.16.16.255

35. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

A) 10.1.1.128/28 10.1.1.144/28 10.1.1.160/28
B) 10.1.1.128/26 10.1.1.140/26 10.1.1.158/28
C) 10.1.1.128/28 10.1.1.140/28 10.1.1.158/26
D) 10.1.1.128/28 10.1.1.144/28 10.1.1.160/29
E) 0.1.1.128/26 10.1.1.144/26 10.1.1.160/26

36. Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?

A) 2001:db8:0:f00::/52
B) 2001:db8:0:8000::/52
C) 2001:db8:0:f::/52
D) 2001:db8:0:f000::/52

37. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

A) The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number utilized by each application
B) The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address used by the PC of the technician.
C) The data flow is being tracked based on the destination port number utilized by each application.
D) The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address used by the PC of the technician

38. What three services are provided by the transport layer?

A) error recovery
B) flow control
C) encryption of data
D) connection establishment
E) data representation

39. An Internet television transmission is using UDP. What happens when part of the transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A) A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
B) The entire transmission is re-sent.
C) The transmission continues without the missing portion.
D) The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.

40. Which two OSI model layers are considered to be included in the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack?

A) internet
B) transport
C) session
D) presentation
E) network

41. An author is uploading one chapter document from a personal computer to a file server of a book publisher. What role is the personal computer assuming in this network model?

A) transient
B) slave
C) server
D) client
E) master

42. Which two automatic addressing assignments are supported by DHCP? (Choose two.)

A) physical address of the recipient
B) default gateway address
C) physical address of the sender
D) subnet mask
E) local server address

43. When a network administrator is trying to manage network traffic on a growing network, when should traffic flow patterns be analyzed?

A) during off-peak hours
B) during employee holidays and weekends
C) during randomly selected times
D) during times of peak utilization

44. What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?

A) disabling network systems or services
B) discovery and mapping of systems
C) denying access to resources by legitimate users
D) unauthorized manipulation of data

45. What will be the result of failed login attempts if the following command is entered into a router?
login block-for 150 attempts 4 within 90

A) All login attempts will be blocked for 90 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds.
B) All login attempts will be blocked for 1.5 hours if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds.
C) All login attempts will be blocked for 150 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 90 seconds.
D) All login attempts will be blocked for 4 hours if there are 90 failed attempts within 150 seconds

46. A user reports a lack of network connectivity. The technician takes control of the user machine and attempts to ping other computers on the network and these pings fail. The technician pings the default gateway and that also fails. What can be determined for sure by the results of these tests?

A) The router that is attached to the same network as the workstation is down.
B) The NIC in the PC is bad.
C) The TCP/IP protocol is not enabled
D) Nothing can be determined for sure at this point

47. For Cisco IOS, which escape sequence allows terminating a traceroute operation?

A) Ctrl+x
B) Ctrl+Esc
C) Ctrl+c
D) Ctrl+Shift+6

48. What is an advantage of storing configuration files to a USB flash drive instead of to a TFTP server?

A) The USB flash drive is more secure.
B) The files can be saved without using terminal emulation software.
C) The configuration files can be stored to a flash drive that uses any file system format.
D) The transfer of the files does not rely on network connectivity.

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