- 1. also known as computer crime, the use of a computer as an instrument to further illegal ends. They are criminal offenses committed via the Internet or otherwise aided by various forms of computer technology. Innovation on computer technology so as the diversity of crimes committed through it.
A) Cyber Dependent Crimes
B) Cyber Enabled Crimes
C) Cyber Assisted Crimes
D) Cybercrime
- 2. are crimes that can only be committed through computer, computer networks, or other form of ICT. Examples of these are hacking malware, and Dos Attacks
A) Cyber Enabled Crimes
B) Cyber Dependent Crimes
C) Cybercrime
D) Cyber Assisted Crimes
- 3. are traditional crimes that are increased in their scale or reach by the use of computers, computer networks or other ICT. Examples are: Child pornography, stalking, criminal copyright infringement and fraud
A) Cyber Assisted Crimes
B) Cyber Dependent Crimes
C) Cyber Enabled Crimes
D) Cybercrime
- 4. are crimes in which the use of computer in an Incidental aspect of the commission of the crime but may afford evidence of the crime Example, addresses found in the computer of the murder suspect, or records of sent between the victim and the suspect before the homicide
A) Cyber Enabled Crimes
B) Cyber Dependent Crimes
C) CyberCrimes
D) Cyber Assisted Crimes
- 5. crimes that involve crossing or violating boundaries of other people digitally. For example, hacking. accessing data without consent.
A) Cyber-Porn and obscenety
B) Cyber-Trespass
C) Cyber-Violence
D) Cyber-Deception and Theft
- 6. this involves offenses such sa online fraud and IP theft.
A) Cyber-Violence
B) Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
C) Cyber-Deception and Theft
D) Cyber-Trespass
- 7. this involves the exploitation of children and distribution of pron materials through the Internet.
A) Cyber-Deception and Theft
B) Cyber-Violence
C) Cyber-Trespass
D) Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
- 8. this refers to the kind of emotional violence that can be enacted online such as bullying or harasement.
A) Cyber-Trespass
B) Cyber-Deception and Theft
C) Cyber-Violence
D) Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
- 9. This refers to the access to the whole or any part of a computer system without right (RA 10175, 2012, Section 4).
A) Illegal Access
B) Access
C) Computer system
D) legal Interception
- 10. refers to the instruction, communication with, storing data in, retrieving data from, or otherwise making use of any resources of a computer system or communication network (RA 10175, 2013, Section 3).
A) Computer system
B) Illegal Access
C) Access
D) legal Interception
- 11. refers to any device or group of Interconnected or related devices, one or more of which, pursuant to a program, performs automated processing of data. It covers any type of device with data processing capabilities Including, but not limited to, computers and mobile phones.
A) Access
B) Illegal Access
C) legal Interception
D) Computer system
- 12. This refers to the interception made by technical means without the right of any non-public transmission of computer data to, from, or within a computer system including electromagnetic emissions from a computer system carrying such computer data
A) Data Interference
B) legal Interception
C) Computer system
D) Computer data
- 13. refers to any representation of facta, Information, or concepts in a form suitable for processing in a computer system including a program suitable to cause a computer system to perform a function and includes electronic documents and/or electronic data messages whether stored in local computer systems or online
A) Computer system
B) Computer data
C) legal Interception
D) Data Interference
- 14. This refers to the intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion or deterioration of computer data, electronic document, or electronic data message, without including the introduction or transmission of viruses
A) Data Interference
B) System Interference
C) legal Interception
D) Computer data
- 15. refers to the modification or change, in form or substance, of an existing computer data or program
A) Computer data
B) System Interference
C) Alteration
D) Computer data
- 16. The intentional alteration or reckless hindering or interference with the functioning of a computer or computer network by inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting. deteriorating, altering or suppressing computer data or program, electronic document, or electronic data message, without right or authority, including the introduction or transmission of viruses
A) Data Interference
B) System Interference
C) Computer system
D) computer virus
- 17. is a type of malicious code or program written to alter the way a computer operates and is designed to spread from one computer to another. A virus operates by inserting or attaching itself to a legitimate program or document that supports macros in order to execute its code. In the process, a virus has the potential to cause unexpected or damaging effects, such as harming the system software by corrupting or destroying data
A) System Interference
B) Data Interference
C) computer virus
D) Computer system
- 18. This type of virus can take control when you start or boot your computer. One way it can spread is by plugging an infected USB drive into your computer
A) Resident Virus
B) Browser Hijacker
C) Web Scripting Virus
D) Boot Sector Virus
- 19. This type of virus exploits the code of web browsers and web pages. If you access such a web page, the virus can infect your computer
A) Resident Virus
B) Browser Hijacker
C) Boot Sector Virus
D) Web Scripting Virus
- 20. This type of virus hijacks" certain web browser functions, and you may be automatically directed to an unintended website
A) Resident Virus
B) Boot Sector Virus
C) Browser Hijacker
D) Web Scripting Virus
- 21. This is a general term for any virus that inserts itself in a computer system's memory. A resident virus can execute anytime when an operating system loads
A) Boot Sector Virus
B) Browser Hijacker
C) Resident Virus
D) Web Scripting Virus
- 22. This type of virus comes into action when you execute a file containing a virus. Otherwise, it remains dormant
A) Direct Action Virus
B) Browser Hijacker
C) Polymorphic Virus
D) Web Scripting Virus
- 23. changes its code each time an infected file is executed. It does this to evade antivirus programs
A) Direct Action Virus
B) Polymorphic Virus
C) Resident Virus
D) File Infector Virus
- 24. This common virus inserts. malicious code into executable files or files used to perform certain functions or operations on a system
A) Polymorphic Virus
B) Direct Action Virus
C) File Infector Virus
D) Resident Virus
- 25. This kind of virus infects and spreads in multiple ways. It can infect both program files and system sectors
A) Resident Virus
B) Multipartite Virus
C) File Infector Virus
D) Macro Virus
- 26. Macro viruses are written in the same macro language used for software. applications. Such viruses spread when you open an infected document, often through email at
A) Multipartite Virus
B) Macro Virus
C) File Infector Virus
D) Polymorphic Virus-
- 27. This refers to the sequisition of a domain name over the Internet in had faith to profit, mislead, destroy reputation and deprive others from registering the same, if wosh domain name
A) Computer-related Fraud
B) computer-related Identity Theft
C) Computer-related Forgery
D) Cybersquatting
- 28. The input, alteration, or deletion of any computer data without right resulting in inauthentic data with the intent that it be considered or acted upon for legal purposes as if it were authentic, regardless whether or not the data is directly readable and intelligible;
A) Computer-related Forgery
B) Cybersquatting
C) Computer-related Fraud
D) computer-related Identity Theft
- 29. Identical or in any way similar with the name of a person other than the registrant, in case of s personal name;
A) computer-related Identity Theft
B) Computer-related Forgery
C) Computer-related Fraud
D) Cybersquatting
- 30. act of knowingly using computer data which is the product of computer-related forgery as defined herein, for the purpose of perpetuating a fraudulent or dishonest design
A) Cybersquatting
B) Computer-related Forgery
C) Computer-related Fraud
D) computer-related Identity Theft
- 31. This refers to the unauthorized input, alteration, or deletion of computer data or program or interference the functioning of a computer system, causing damage thereby with fraudulent intent
A) Cybersquatting
B) Computer-related Forgery
C) computer-related Identity Theft
D) Computer-related Fraud
- 32. This is the intentional acquisition, use, misuse, transfer. possession, alteration or deletion of identifying information belonging to another, whether natural or juridical, without right (RA 10175, 2012, Section 4).
A) Cybersquatting
B) computer-related Identity Theft
C) Computer-related Forgery
D) Computer-related Fraud
- 33. This refers to the willful engagement, maintenance. control, or operation, directly or indirectly, of any lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer system, for favor or consideration
A) Cybersex
B) Child Sexual Exploitation
C) computer-related Identity Theft
D) Cybersquatting
- 34. Also known as Child Pornography (RA 10175, sota, Section 4), this refers to any representation, whether visual, audio, or written combination thereof, by electronic, mechanieal, digital, optical, magnetic or any other means, of child engaged or involved in real or simulated explicit sexual activities
A) Cybersex
B) computer-related Identity Theft
C) Cybersquatting
D) Child Sexual Exploitation
- 35. This refers to the transmission of cómmertial electronic communication with the use of computer system which seek to advertise, sell, or offer for r sale e products and an services are prohibited unless
A) Cyberxes
B) Child Sexual Exploitation
C) Insolicited Commercial Communications
D) Libel
- 36. is public and malicious imputation of a crime, or of a vice or defect, real or Imaginary, or any act, omission, condition, status, or circumstance tending to cause the dishonor, discredit, or contempt of a natural or juridical person, or to blacken the memory of one who is dead
A) Insolicited Commercial Communications
B) Libel
C) Child Sexual Exploitation
D) Cybersex
- 37. Also known as Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012 was approved on September 12, 2012 and signed by the he President Benigno Aquino lll
A) Republic Act No.9995
B) Republic Act No.10173
C) Republic Act No.9775
D) Republic Act No.10175
- 38. also known as Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009.1 2. It was enacted last November 17, 2009, and signed by the then President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo. It prohibits the production, offering, distribution and possession of "child pornography.
A) Republile Act No.10173
B) Republile Act No.10175
C) Republic Act No. 9775
D) Republile Act No.9995
- 39. also known as Special Protection of Children Against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act, was enacted June 17, 1992. It is an act providing for stronger deterrence and special protection against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination. The comprehensive program against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination refers to the coordinated program of services and facilities to protected children against
A) Republic Act No. 8484
B) Republic Act No. 7610
C) Republic Act No. 9995
D) Republic Act No. 10175
- 40. Children, whether male or female, who for money, profit, or any other consideration or due to the coercion or influence of any adult, syndicate or group. indulge in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct, are deemed to be children exploited in prostitution and other sexual abuse
A) Child Prostitution and Other Sexual Abuse
B) Child Trafficking
C) Republic Act No. 7610
D) Obscene Publications and Indecent Shows
- 41. It is the act of trading and dealing with children including, but not limited to, the act of buying and selling of a child for money, or for any other consideration, or barter
A) Obscene Publications and Indecent Shows
B) Child Prostitution and Other Sexual Abuse
C) Child Trafficking
D) Republic Act No. 7610
- 42. This refers to the acts of hiring, employing, using. persuading, inducing or coercing a child to perform in obscene exhibitions and indecent shows, whether live or in video, or model in obscene publications or pornographic materials or to sell or distribute the said materials
A) Child Prostitution and Other Sexual Abuse
B) Republic Act No. 7610
C) Obscene Publications and Indecent Shows
D) Child Trafficking
- 43. also known as the Anti-Photo and Video yeurism Act of 2009, it was enacted February 15 2010 and was was signed the then President Macapagal-Arroyo. It is an act defining and nalising the crime of photo and video voyeuriam.
A) Republic Act No. 10175
B) Republic Act No. 9775
C) Republic Act No. 9995
D) Republic Act No. 8484
- 44. also known as the Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998, it was enacted February 11, 1998. It is an act regulating the issuance and use of access devices and prohibiting, and penalizing fraudulent acts committed in relation to access devices.
A) Republic Act No. 9775
B) Repubile Act No. 8484
C) Repubile Act No. 10175
D) Republic Act No. 9995
- 45. was enacted August 28, 2019, and signed by President Rodrigo Duterte. It is an act that provides additional prohibitions and increases penalties for violation of the RA 8484 or the Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998."
A) Republic Act No. 9775
B) Republic Act No. 11449
C) Republic Act No. 8484
D) Republic Act No.9995
- 46. copying or counterfeiting any credit card, payment card or debit card, and obtaining any Information therein with the intent of accessing the account and operating the same whether or not cash is withdrawn or monetary Injury is caused by a perpetrator against the account holder or the depositary bank;
A) Stafa
B) Robbery
C) Frued
D) Skimming
- 47. refers to the unauthorized access into or Interference in a computer system/server, or Information. and communication system, or any access in order to corrupt, alter, steal, or destroy using a computer or other similar information and communication devices without the knowledge and consent of the owner of the computer or information and communication system, including the Introduction of computer viruses and the like resulting in the corruption, destruction, alteration, theft, or loss of electronic data messages or electronic documents.
A) Hacking
B) Swinling
C) Skimming,
D) Stafa
- 48. also known as the Electronic Commerce
et, was enacted June 14, 2000. It is an act that recognizes the use
electronic commercial and non commercial transactions.
A) Republic Act No. 10173
B) Republic Act No. 8792
C) Republic Act No. 8484
D) Republic Act No. 9775
- 49. refers to a system
generating, sending, receiving, storing or otherwise processing
ctronic data messages or electronic documents and includes the
mputer system or other similar device by or in which data is recorded
stored and any procedures related to the recording or storage of
ctronic data message or electronie document
A) Information and Communication System
B) Swindling
C) Hacking
D) Stafa
- 50. which refers to unauthorized access into or interference in a computer system/server or Information and communication system; or any access in order to corrupt, alter, steal, or destroy using a computer or other similar information and communication devices, without the knowledge and consent of the owner of the computer or information and communication system, including the Introduction of computer viruses and the like, resulting in the corruption, destruction, alteration. theft or loss of electronic data messages or electronic documents.
A) Republic Act 10173
B) Piracy
C) Stafa
D) Hacking or cracking
- 51. which refers to the unauthorized copying. reproduction, dissemination, distribution, importation, use, removal, alteration, substitution, modification, storage, uploading, downloading, communication, making available to the public, or broadcasting of protected material, electronic signature or copyrighted works including legally protected sound recordings or phonograms or information material on protected works, through the use of telecommunication networks, such as, but not limited to, the internet, in a manner that infringes intellectual property rights.
A) Swinling
B) Piracy
C) Stafa
D) Hacking or cracking
- 52. and other relevantor pertinent laws through transactions covered by or using electronic data messages or electronie documents,
A) Republic Act 10173
B) Violations of the Consumer Act or Republic Act No. 7394
C) Piracy
D) Stafa
- 53. This refers to persons who knowingly and unlawfully, or violating data confidentiality and security data systems, breaks in any way into any system where personal and sensitive personal information is stored.
A) Unauthorized Disclosure
B) Concealment of Security Breaches Involving Sensitive Personal Information
C) Unauthorized Access or Intentional Breach
D) Malicious Disclosure
- 54. This pertains to persons who, after having knowledge of a security breach and of the obligation to notify the National Privacy Commission, intentionally or by omission conceals the fact of such security breach.
A) Malicious Disclosure
B) Unauthorized Disclosure
C) Unauthorized Disclosure
D) Concealment of Security Breaches Involving Sensitive Personal Information
- 55. This refers to any personal information controller or personal information processor or any of its officials, employees or agents, who, with malice or in bad faith, discloses unwarranted or false information relative to any personal information or personal sensitive information obtained by him or her.
A) Unauthorized Disclosure
B) Concealment of Security Breaches Involving Sensitive Personal Information
C) Unauthorized Access or Intentional Breach
D) Malicious Disclosure
- 56. It pertains to any personal information controller or personal information processor or any of its officials, employees or agents, who discloses to a third party personal information not covered by the immediately preceding section without the consent of the data subject.
A) Frued
B) Stafa
C) Unauthorized Disclosure
D) Malicious Disclosure
- 57. is the means sanctioned by the Rules of Court, of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact. These include but are not limited to documentary, testimonial, electronicand object evidence, gathered in the course of the investigation (PNP, 2010).
A) Physical Evidence
B) Evidence
C) Object/Real Evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
- 58. also known as Physical Evidence, it is any type of evidence that is real or has an objective existence. It has dimension, size or shape; it can be seen, touched, smelled or tasted; it is solid, semisolid or liquid (Galero-Müftüoğlu, 2017, p.102). These are evidence that are addressed to the senses of the court. When an object is relevant to the fact in issue, it may be exhibited to, examined or viewed by the court
A) Object/Real Evidence
B) Evidence
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Physical Evidence
- 59. consists of writings or any material containing letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols or other modes of written expressions offered as a proof of their contents
A) Physical Evidence,
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Object/Real Evidence
D) Documentary Evidence
- 60. It requires that the original document be produced whenever its contents are the subject of Inquiry. As such, mere photocoples of documents are inadmissible pursuant to the best evidence rule. No evidence shall be admissible other than the original document itself, except in the following cases
A) Physical evidence
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Documentary Evidence
D) Rules on Secondary Evidence
- 61. According to the Revised Rules on Evidence (1989), documents other than the its original copy can be admissible in court if it follows following criteria:
A) Rules on Secondary Evidence
B) Documentary Evidence
C) Rules on Evidence
D) Best Evidence Rule
- 62. Document is to be interpreted according to the legal meaning it bears in the place of its execution, unless the parties intended otherwise
A) Instrument construed so as to give effect to all provisions
B) Interpretation according to circumstances
C) Interpretation according to Intention
D) Interpretation of a writing according to its legal meaning
- 63. In the construction of an instrument, where there are several provisions or particulars, such a construction is, if possible, to be adopted as will give effect to all the provisions
A) Instrument construed so as to give effect to all provisions
B) Interpretation of a writing according to its legal meaning
C) Interpretation according to Intention
D) Interpretation according to circumstances
- 64. In the construction of an instrument, the intention of the parties is to be pursued.
A) Instrument construed so as to give effect to all provisions
B) Peculiar signification of terms
C) Interpretation according to Intention
D) Interpretation of a writing according to its legal meaning
- 65. When a general and a particular provision are Inconsistent, the latter is paramount to the former. A particular intent will control a general one that is inconsistent with it
A) Peculiar signification of terms
B) Interpretation of a writing according to its legal meaning
C) Interpretation of a writing according to its legal meaning
D) Interpretation according to Intention
- 66. The proper construction of an instrument, the circumstances under which it was made, including the situation of the subject thereof and of the parties to it, may be presented
A) Interpretation according to circumstances
B) Interpretation according to Intention
C) Peculiar signification of terms
D) Interpretation of a writing according to its legal meaning
- 67. Evidence is admissible to show that they have a local, technical, or otherwise peculiar signification, and were so used and understood in the particular instance, in which case the agreement must be construed accordingly
A) Interpretation according to circumstances
B) Interpretation of a writing according to its legal meaning
C) Written words control printed.
D) Peculiar signification of terms
- 68. If the document or instrument consists partly of written words and partly of a printed form, and the two are inconsistent, the former controls the latter
A) Written words control printed.
B) Interpretation of a writing according to its legal meaning
C) Instrument construed so as to give effect to all provisions
D) Peculiar signification of terms
- 69. If the characters in which the document is written are difficult to be deciphered, or the language is not understood by the court, the evidence of persons skilled in deciphering the characters, or who the language, is admissible to declare the characters or the meaning of the language
A) Of two constructions, which preferred
B) Construction in favor of natural right
C) Experts and interpreters to be used in explaining certain writings
D) Parol Evidence Rule
- 70. If the terms of an agreement have been intended in a different sense by the different parties to it, the most favorable to the party shall prevail
A) Construction in favor of natural right
B) Written words control printed.
C) Interpretation according to usage
D) Of two constructions, which preferred
- 71. If an instrument is equally susceptible to two interpretations, one in favor of natural right and other against it. The one who favors natural right is to be adopted
A) Written words control printed.
B) Interpretation according to usage
C) Of two constructions, which preferred
D) Construction in favor of natural right
- 72. An instrument may be construed according to usage, in order to determine its true character
A) Interpretation according to usage
B) Written words control printed.
C) Experts and interpreters to be used in explaining certain writings
D) Construction in favor of natural right
- 73. that when the parties to a contract have made and signed a completely integrated written contract, evidence of negotiations (called "parol evidence") will not be admissible for the purpose of varying or contradicting what is written into the contract. It bars evidence of any agreements made before or at the same time as the actual written agreement, which were not included in the final written agreement.
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Physical evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
- 74. is where a person takes the stand and answers questions about a case. It is information obtained through Interviewing and Interrogating individuals about what they saw (eyewitness evidence), heard (hearsay evidence) or know (character evidence).
A) Physical evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Testimonial Evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
- 75. All persons who can perceive, and perceiving, can make their known perception to others, hence can be a witness (Rule 130, 1989, Section 20). A person may be disqualified as being a witness based on the following:
A) Mental Incapacity or Immaturity
B) Marriage
C) Death or Insanity Adverse Party
D) Qualification of Witnesses
- 76. Those whose mental condition, at the time of
their production for examination, is such that they are incapable of intelligently making known their perception to others;
A) Death or Insanity Adverse Party
B) Mental Incapacity or Immaturity
C) Marriage
D) Qualification of Witnesses
- 77. During their marriage, neither the husband nor the wife may testify for or against the other without the consent of the affected spouse, except in (Rule 130, 1989, Section 22):
A) Death or Insanity Adverse Party
B) Object to Intention
C) Marriage
D) Mental Incapacity or Immaturity
- 78. Also known as the Dead Man's Statute, it states that if one party to the alleged transaction is precluded from testifying by death, insanity, or other mental disabilities, the surviving party is not entitled to the undue advantage of giving his own uncontradicted and unexplained account of the transaction."
A) Death or Insanity Adverse Party
B) Marriage
C) Mental Incapacity or Immaturity
- 79. is the act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant fact may be given in evidence against him (Rule 130, 1989, Section 26).
A) Disclosure
B) Rules for life
C) Admission
D) Confessions
- 80. is the declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily included therein, may be given in evidence against him (Rule 130, 1989, Section 33).
A) Physical evidence
B) Direct deposit
C) Confessions
D) Admission
- 81. is an exclusionary rule," prohibiting hearsay or out of court statements offered as proof of that statement, from being admitted as evidence because of the inability of the other party to cross-examine the maker of the statement. According to the Section 36 of the Revised Rules of Evidence (1989), a witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal knowledge; that is, which are derived from his own perception.
A) Dying Declaration
B) The Hearsay Rule
C) Act or Declaration about Pedigree
D) Rules of Evidence
- 82. Although, testimony is generally confined to personal knowledge; there are exceptions where out of court statements can be admitted as evidence. Here are the following exceptions to the Hearsay Rule (Rule 130, 1989, Section 37-47):
A) Declaration Against Interest
B) Exceptions to the Hearsay Rule
C) Act or Declaration about Pedigree
D) Dying Declaration-refers
- 83. refers to the declaration of a dying person.
A) Act or Declaration about Pedigree
B) Exceptions to the Hearsay Rule
C) A lay witness
D) Dying Declaration
- 84. Statements against interest, sometimes called admissions or confessions, are statements or which in some way adversely affect the divulging party. The confession doesn't need to be formal admission. such as a statement given to the police. Formal admissions are admissible as part of the publie record.
A) Dying Declaration-refers
B) Declaration Against Interest
C) Exceptions to the Hearsay Rule
- 85. The act or declaration of a person deceased, or unable to testify, in respect to the pedigree of another person related to him by birth or marriage, may be received in evidence.
A) Declaration Against Interest
B) Act or Declaration about Pedigree
C) Dying Declaration-refers
- 86. The reputation or tradition existing in a family previous to the controversy, in respect to the pedigree of any one
of its members, may be received in evidence if the witness thereon be also a member of the family, either by consanguinity or affinity. Entries in family bibles or other family books or charts, engravings on rings, family portraits and the like, may be received as evidence of pedigree.
A) Common Reputation
B) Part of res gestae
C) Entries in the Course of Business
D) Family Reputation or Tradition Regarding Pedigree
- 87. Common reputation existing previous to the controversy, respecting facts of public or general interest more than thirty years old, or respecting marriage or moral character, may be given in evidence. Monuments and inscriptions in public places may be received as evidence of common reputation.
A) Entries in the Course of Business
B) Common Reputation
C) Family Reputation or Tradition Regarding Pedigree
D) Part of res gestae
- 88. A declaration made by a person immediately after being wounded, pointing out or naming his assailant, may be considered as part of the res gestae and is admissible in evidence. Res gestae is used to refer to a declaration that is made at an event that proves the event happened because the words were uttered upon witnessing the event.
A) Entries in the Course of Business
B) Part of res gestae
C) Entries in Official Records
D) Family Reputation or Tradition Regarding Pedigree
- 89. Entries made at, or near the time of transactions to which they refer, by a person deceased, or unable to testify, who was in a position to know the facts therein stated, may be received as prima facie evidence
A) Entries in the Course of Business
B) Family Reputation or Tradition Regarding Pedigree
C) Entries in Official Records
D) Commercial Lists and the Like
- 90. Any properly-kept official government records are admissible, such as income tax returns and information. Private business records are also admissible, so long as a qualified witness can identify them and explain their maintenance or clarify their meaning
A) Entries in Official Records
B) Entries in the Course of Business
C) Commercial Lists and the Like
- 91. This refers to the published treatise, periodical or pamphlet on a subject of history, law, science, or art is admissible as tending to prove the truth of a matter stated therein if the court takes judicial notice, or a witness
expert in the subject testifles, that the writer of the statement in the treatise, periodical or pamphlet is recognized in his profession or calling as expert in the subject.
A) Entries in Official Records
B) Commercial Lists and the Like
C) Learned Treatises
- 92. The testimony or deposition of a witness deceased or unable to testify, given in a former case or proceeding, judicial or administrative, involving the same parties and subject matter, may be given in evidence against the adverse party who had the opportunity to cross-examine him.
A) Entries in Official Records
B) Learned Treatises
C) Testimony or Deposition at a Former Proceeding
- 93. this is the most common type. It is a person who watched certain events and describes what they saw.
A) lay witness
B) character witness
C) expert witness
- 94. It is someone who is educated in a certain area. They testify with respect to their specialty area only.
A) lay witness
B) expert witness
C) character witness
D) An expert witness or a specialist
- 95. It is someone who knows the victim, the defendant, or other people involved in the case. Character witnesses usually don't see the crime take place but they can be very helpful in a case because they know the personality of the defendant or victim, or what type of person the defendant or victim was before the crime.
A) Lay witness
B) character witness
C) expert witness
D) An expert witness or a specialist
- 96. is used to describe a character trait of a person, such as a tendency to commit crimes. Character evidence could also Include a witness testifying that a party in the case has a reputation in the community of being a violent person, or a witness opinion that the defendant is very honest and truthful
A) Lay evidence
B) Character evidence
C) Expert evidence
- 97. The opinion of a witness on a matter requiring special knowledge, skill, experience or training which he showed and possesses, may be received in evidence.
A) Witness
B) Opinion of Ordinary Witnesses.
C) Opinion of Expert Witness
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